Virology MCQs 26-50

26. Eastern equine encephalitis virus is associated with a high fatality rate.
Control of the disease could be possible by eradication of
a. Horses
b. Birds
c. Mosquitoes
d. Fleas
e. Ticks




27. Adults who have had varicella as children occasionally suffer a recurrent
form of the disease, shingles. The agent causing these diseases is a
member of which of the following viral families?
a. Herpesvirus
b. Poxvirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Myxovirus
e. Paramyxovirus




28. Rhinovirus is primarily transmitted by
a. Droplet aerosolization
b. Sexual activity
c. Fecal-oral route
d. Fomites
e. Vertical transmission from mother to child




29. German measles virus (rubella), a common cause of exanthems in
children, is best described by which of the following statements?
a. Measles (rubeola) and German measles (rubella) are caused by the same virus
b. Incubation time is approximately 3 to 4 weeks
c. Vesicular rashes are characteristic
d. Onset is abrupt with cough, coryza, and fever
e. Specific antibody in the serum does not prevent disease




30. The presence of Negri inclusion bodies in host cells is characteristic of
a. Mumps
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Congenital rubella
d. Aseptic meningitis
e. Rabies




31. Kuru is a fatal disease of certain New Guinea natives and is characterized
by tremors and ataxia; Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is characterized
by both ataxia and dementia. These diseases are thought to be caused
by
a. Slow viruses
b. Cell wall–deficient bacteria
c. Environmental toxins
d. Prions
e. Flagellates




32. According to recommendations issued by the U.S. Public Health Service,
which of the following statements regarding vaccination against
smallpox is true?
a. Pregnant women should be vaccinated in the first trimester
b. Persons who have eczema should be vaccinated soon after diagnosis
c. Persons who have immune deficiencies should be vaccinated every 5 years
d. Persons traveling abroad need not be vaccinated
e. Children should be vaccinated before they begin school




33. Hepatitis D virus (delta agent) is a defective virus that can replicate
only in cells already infected with which of the following viruses?
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Hepatitis G virus
d. Hepatitis B virus
e. HIV




34. A patient presents with keratoconjunctivitis. The differential diagnosis
should include infection with which of the following viruses?
a. Parvovirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
e. Varicella-zoster virus





35. A hospital worker is found to have hepatitis B surface antigen. Subsequent
tests reveal the presence of e antigen as well. The worker most likely
a. Is infective and has active hepatitis
b. Is infective but does not have active hepatitis
c. Is not infective
d. Is evincing a biologic false-positive test for hepatitis
e. Has both hepatitis B and C




36. Alphavirus causes which one of the following viral diseases?
a. Marburg virus disease
b. St. Louis encephalitis
c. Western equine encephalitis
d. Dengue
e. Yellow fever





37. Several antiviral compounds have been developed during the last
decade. One such compound is ribavirin, a synthetic nucleoside structurally
related to guanosine. Ribavirin therapy has been successfully used
against
a. Respiratory syncytial virus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Hepatitis B
d. Group A coxsackievirus
e. Parvovirus





38. An immunocompromised person with history of seizures had an MRI
that revealed a temporal lobe lesion. Brain biopsy results showed multinucleated
giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. The most probable cause of
the lesion is
a. Hepatitis C virus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Coxsackievirus
e. Parvovirus




39. Which of the following procedures or clinical signs is most specific for
the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr
virus?
a. Laboratory diagnosis is based on the presence of “atypical lymphocytes” and
EBV-specific antibody
b. Growth in tissue culture cells
c. Heterophile antibodies in serum
d. Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly on physical examination
e. B-cell lymphocyte proliferation





40. An infant, seen in the ER, presents with a fever and persistent cough.
Physical examination and a chest x-ray suggest pneumonia. Which of the
following is most likely the cause of this infection?
a. Rotavirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Coxsackievirus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
e. Rhinovirus





41. Which one of the following groups of people may be at increased risk
for HIV infection?
a. Members of a household in which there is a person who is HIV-positive
b. Receptionists at a hospital
c. Factory workers whose coworkers are HIV-positive
d. Foreign service employees who are hospitalized in Zaire for bleeding ulcers
e. Homosexual females





42. An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella
virus in the eighteenth week of pregnancy. She does not remember getting
a rubella vaccination. The best immediate course of action is to
a. Terminate the pregnancy
b. Order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status
c. Reassure the patient because rubella is not a problem until after the thirtieth
week
d. Administer rubella immune globulin
e. Administer rubella vaccine





43. Mad Cow Disease has been highly publicized in Great Britain. This
disease, which is similar to scrapie, is caused by
a. A prion
b. A virus
c. Rickettsiae
d. An autoimmune reaction
e. A bacterium with a defective cell wall





44. A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with
hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all the tests for HAV-IgG and HAV-IgM are nonreactive.
A possible cause of this infection is
a. Hepatitis B surface antigen
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis D
d. Hepatitis E
e. Rotavirus





45. A 70-year-old nursing home patient refused the influenza vaccine and
subsequently developed influenza. She died of acute pneumonia 1 week
after contracting the “flu.” The most common cause of acute postinfluenzal
pneumonia is
a. Legionella
b. Listeria
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Klebsiella
e. Escherichia coli





46. Which of the following viruses is primarily transmitted by the fecaloral
route?
a. St. Louis encephalitis virus
b. Colorado tick fever virus
c. Coxsackievirus
d. Yellow fever virus
e. Dengue fever virus





47. Hantavirus is an emerging pathogen that is best described by which of
the following statements?
a. Influenza-like symptoms are followed rapidly by acute respiratory failure
b. Hemolysis is common in infected patients
c. It is acquired by inhalation of aerosols of the urine and feces of deer
d. Transmission from human to human is common
e. There is effective antiviral therapy available





48. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), a self-limited disease of children,
is caused by
a. Measles
b. Parvovirus
c. Rubella
d. Human herpesvirus type 6
e. Norwalk virus





49. Which one of the following viruses may be human tumor virus?
a. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
b. HIV
c. Papillomavirus
d. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
e. Herpes simplex virus, type 2 (HSV)




50. Parvovirus infection, the cause of a mild exanthem in children, is
characterized by
a. Epidemic acute respiratory disease
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Whooping cough–like disease
d. Keratoconjunctivitis
e. Acute hemolytic anemia